Possible Duplicate: Prove 0! = 1 0! = 1 from first principles Why does 0! = 1 0! = 1? All I know of factorial is that x! x! is equal to the product of all the numbers that come before it. The product of 0 and …

What I would say is that you can multiply any non-zero number by infinity and get either infinity or negative infinity as long as it isn't used in any mathematical proof. Because multiplying by infinity is …

Mar 28, 2022 · António Manuel Martins claims (@44:41 of his lecture "Fonseca on Signs") that the origin of what is now called the correspondence theory of truth, Veritas est adæquatio rei et …

Oct 29, 2025 · This is Wolfram convention wich is not the same as you define por K and E. I.e K (m)=K (√k). See reference.wolfram.com/language/ref/EllipticK.html

Nov 23, 2025 · The main criteria is that it be asked in bad faith. ;-). I'm not entirely insincere: The question is rather how can we tell that, and a big part of the answer is "context"; it's not mainly the …

Nov 11, 2018 · The Integration by Parts formula may be stated as: $$\\int uv' = uv - \\int u'v.$$ I wonder if anyone has a clever mnemonic for the above formula. What I often do is to derive it from the …

Aug 3, 2015 · Although there isn't much difference between Z,N,I Z, N, I, they are well-known, and each one gets its own distinguished symbol. Is there any reason that primes don't get their own special …

Jun 2, 2022 · To find the Laplacian at a point (x, y) (x, y) with y = 1 y = 1 you cannot put y = 1 y = 1 in the beginning and start differentiating. You have to first find uxx +uyy u x x + u y y at a general point …

Jan 13, 2026 · +1 I would like to add that this “key result” is the universal property of product topology. See here for example (in case OP reads this comment).

In 1910, Srinivasa Ramanujan found several rapidly converging infinite series of $\\pi$, such as $$ \\frac{1}{\\pi} = \\frac{2\\sqrt{2}}{9801} \\sum^\\infty_{k=0 ...